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Question # 1



Which of the following is the main reason quantum computing advancements are leading companies and countries to deploy new encryption algorithms?
A. Encryption systems based on large prime numbers will be vulnerable to exploitation
B. Zero Trust security architectures will require homomorphic encryption.
C. Perfect forward secrecy will prevent deployment of advanced firewall monitoring techniques
D. Quantum computers will enable malicious actors to capture IP traffic in real time



A.
  Encryption systems based on large prime numbers will be vulnerable to exploitation

Explanation:

Advancements in quantum computing pose a significant threat to current encryption systems, especially those based on the difficulty of factoring large prime numbers, such as RSA. Quantum computers have the potential to solve these problems exponentially faster than classical computers, making current cryptographic systems vulnerable. Why Large Prime Numbers are Vulnerable:

Shor's Algorithm: Quantum computers can use Shor's algorithm to factorize large integers efficiently, which undermines the security of RSA encryption. Cryptographic Breakthrough: The ability to quickly factor large prime numbers means that encrypted data, which relies on the hardness of this mathematical problem, can be decrypted.

Other options, while relevant, do not capture the primary reason for the shift towards new encryption algorithms:

B. Zero Trust security architectures: While important, the shift to homomorphic encryption is not the main driver for new encryption algorithms. C. Perfect forward secrecy: It enhances security but is not the main reason for new encryption algorithms.

D. Real-time IP traffic capture: Quantum computers pose a more significant threat to the underlying cryptographic algorithms than to the real-time capture of traffic.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
NIST Special Publication 800-208, "Recommendation for Stateful Hash-Based Signature Schemes"

"Quantum Computing and Cryptography," MIT Technology Review





Question # 2



After some employees were caught uploading data to online personal storage accounts, a company becomes concerned about data leaks related to sensitive, internal documentation. Which of the following would the company most likely do to decrease this type of risk?
A. Improve firewall rules to avoid access to those platforms.
B. Implement a cloud-access security broker
C. Create SIEM rules to raise alerts for access to those platforms
D. Deploy an internet proxy that filters certain domains



B.
  Implement a cloud-access security broker

Explanation:

A Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) is a security policy enforcement point placed between cloud service consumers and cloud service providers to combine and interject enterprise security policies as cloud-based resources are accessed. Implementing a CASB provides several benefits:

A. Improve firewall rules to avoid access to those platforms: This can help but is not as effective or comprehensive as a CASB.

B. Implement a cloud-access security broker: A CASB can provide visibility into cloud application usage, enforce data security policies, and protect against data leaks by monitoring and controlling access to cloud services. It also provides advanced features like data encryption, data loss prevention (DLP), and compliance monitoring.

C. Create SIEM rules to raise alerts for access to those platforms: This helps in monitoring but does not prevent data leaks.

D. Deploy an internet proxy that filters certain domains: This can block access to specific sites but lacks the granular control and visibility provided by a CASB. Implementing a CASB is the most comprehensive solution to decrease the risk of data leaks by providing visibility, control, and enforcement of security policies for cloud services.

References:

CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
Gartner, "Magic Quadrant for Cloud Access Security Brokers"
NIST SP 800-144, "Guidelines on Security and Privacy in Public Cloud Computing"





Question # 3



All organization is concerned about insider threats from employees who have individual access to encrypted material. Which of the following techniques best addresses this issue?
A. SSO with MFA
B. Sating and hashing
C. Account federation with hardware tokens
D. SAE
E. Key splitting



E.
  Key splitting

Explanation:

The technique that best addresses the issue of insider threats from employees who have individual access to encrypted material is key splitting. Here’s why: Key Splitting: Key splitting involves dividing a cryptographic key into multiple parts and distributing these parts among different individuals or systems. This ensures that no single individual has complete access to the key, thereby mitigating the risk of insider threats.

Increased Security: By requiring multiple parties to combine their key parts to access encrypted material, key splitting provides an additional layer of security. This approach is particularly useful in environments where sensitive data needs to be protected from unauthorized access by insiders.

Compliance and Best Practices: Key splitting aligns with best practices and regulatory requirements for handling sensitive information, ensuring that access is tightly controlled and monitored.

References:

By employing key splitting, organizations can effectively reduce the risk of insider threats and enhance the overall security of encrypted material.





Question # 4



An organization is developing on Al-enabled digital worker to help employees complete common tasks such as template development, editing, research, and scheduling. As part of the Al workload the organization wants to Implement guardrails within the platform. Which of the following should the company do to secure the Al environment?
A. Limn the platform's abilities to only non-sensitive functions
B. Enhance the training model's effectiveness.
C. Grant the system the ability to self-govern
D. Require end-user acknowledgement of organizational policies.



A.
  Limn the platform's abilities to only non-sensitive functions

Explanation:

Limiting the platform's abilities to only non-sensitive functions helps to mitigate risks associated with AI operations. By ensuring that the AI-enabled digital worker is only allowed to perform tasks that do not involve sensitive or critical data, the organization reduces the potential impact of any security breaches or misuse. Enhancing the training model's effectiveness (Option B) is important but does not directly address security guardrails. Granting the system the ability to self-govern (Option C) could increase risk as it may act beyond the organization's control. Requiring end-user acknowledgement of organizational policies (Option D) is a good practice but does not implement technical guardrails to secure the AI environment.

References:

CompTIA Security+ Study Guide

NIST SP 800-53 Rev. 5, "Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations"

ISO/IEC 27001, "Information Security Management"





Question # 5



An organization wants to manage specialized endpoints and needs a solution that provides the ability to

* Centrally manage configurations

* Push policies.

• Remotely wipe devices

• Maintain asset inventory

Which of the following should the organization do to best meet these requirements?

A. Use a configuration management database
B. Implement a mobile device management solution.
C. Configure contextual policy management
D. Deploy a software asset manager



B.
   Implement a mobile device management solution.

Explanation:

To meet the requirements of centrally managing configurations, pushing policies, remotely wiping devices, and maintaining an asset inventory, the best solution is to implement a Mobile Device Management (MDM) solution. MDM Capabilities:

Central Management: MDM allows administrators to manage the configurations of all devices from a central console.

Policy Enforcement: MDM solutions enable the push of security policies and updates to ensure compliance across all managed devices.

Remote Wipe: In case a device is lost or stolen, MDM provides the capability to remotely wipe the device to protect sensitive data.

Asset Inventory: MDM maintains an up-to-date inventory of all managed devices, including their configurations and installed applications.

Other options do not provide the same comprehensive capabilities required for managing specialized endpoints.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide

NIST Special Publication 800-124 Revision 1, "Guidelines for Managing the Security of Mobile Devices in the Enterprise"

"Mobile Device Management Overview," Gartner Research





Question # 6



During a gap assessment, an organization notes that OYOD usage is a significant risk. The organization implemented administrative policies prohibiting BYOD usage However, the organization has not implemented technical controls to prevent the unauthorized use of BYOD assets when accessing the organization's resources. Which of the following solutions should the organization implement to b»« reduce the risk of OYOD devices? (Select two).

A. Cloud 1AM to enforce the use of token based MFA
B. Conditional access, to enforce user-to-device binding
C. NAC, to enforce device configuration requirements
D. PAM. to enforce local password policies
E. SD-WAN. to enforce web content filtering through external proxies



B.
  Conditional access, to enforce user-to-device binding


C.
  NAC, to enforce device configuration requirements

Explanation:

To reduce the risk of unauthorized BYOD (Bring Your Own Device) usage, the organization should implement Conditional Access and Network Access Control (NAC). Why Conditional Access and NAC?

Conditional Access:

Network Access Control (NAC):

Other options, while useful, do not address the specific need to control and secure BYOD devices effectively:

A. Cloud IAM to enforce token-based MFA: Enhances authentication security but does not control device compliance.

D. PAM to enforce local password policies: Focuses on privileged account management, not BYOD control.

E. SD-WAN to enforce web content filtering: Enhances network performance and security but does not enforce BYOD device compliance.

F. DLP to enforce data protection capabilities: Protects data but does not control BYOD device access and compliance.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide

"Conditional Access Policies," Microsoft Documentation

"Network Access Control (NAC)," Cisco Documentation





Question # 7



A security analyst Detected unusual network traffic related to program updating processes The analyst collected artifacts from compromised user workstations. The discovered artifacts were binary files with the same name as existing, valid binaries but. with different hashes which of the following solutions would most likely prevent this situation from reoccurring?
A. Improving patching processes
B. Implementing digital signature
C. Performing manual updates via USB ports
D. Allowing only dies from internal sources



B.
  Implementing digital signature

Explanation:

Implementing digital signatures ensures the integrity and authenticity of software binaries. When a binary is digitally signed, any tampering with the file (e.g., replacing it with a malicious version) would invalidate the signature. This allows systems to verify the origin and integrity of binaries before execution, preventing the execution of unauthorized or compromised binaries.

A. Improving patching processes: While important, this does not directly address the issue of verifying the integrity of binaries.

B. Implementing digital signatures: This ensures that only valid, untampered binaries are executed, preventing attackers from substituting legitimate binaries with malicious ones.

C. Performing manual updates via USB ports: This is not practical and does not scale well, especially in large environments.

D. Allowing only files from internal sources: This reduces the risk but does not provide a mechanism to verify the integrity of binaries.

References:

CompTIA Security+ Study Guide

NIST SP 800-57, "Recommendation for Key Management"

OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project) guidelines on code signing





Question # 8



A cybersecurity architect is reviewing the detection and monitoring capabilities for a global company that recently made multiple acquisitions. The architect discovers that the acquired companies use different vendors for detection and monitoring The architect's goal is to:

• Create a collection of use cases to help detect known threats

• Include those use cases in a centralized library for use across all of the companies

Which of the following is the best way to achieve this goal?

A. Sigma rules
B. Ariel Query Language
C. UBA rules and use cases
D. TAXII/STIX library



A.
  Sigma rules

Explanation:

To create a collection of use cases for detecting known threats and include them in a centralized library for use across multiple companies with different vendors, Sigma rules are the best option. Here’s why:

Vendor-Agnostic Format: Sigma rules are a generic and open standard for writing SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) rules. They can be translated to specific query languages of different SIEM systems, making them highly versatile and applicable across various platforms.

Centralized Rule Management: By using Sigma rules, the cybersecurity architect can create a centralized library of detection rules that can be easily shared and implemented across different detection and monitoring systems used by the acquired companies. This ensures consistency in threat detection capabilities. Ease of Use and Flexibility: Sigma provides a structured and straightforward format for defining detection logic. It allows for the easy creation, modification, and sharing of rules, facilitating collaboration and standardization across the organization.




Question # 9



A company wants to invest in research capabilities with the goal to operationalize the research output. Which of the following is the best option for a security architect to recommend?
A. Dark web monitoring
B. Threat intelligence platform
C. Honeypots
D. Continuous adversary emulation



B.
  Threat intelligence platform

Explanation:

Investing in a threat intelligence platform is the best option for a company looking to operationalize research output. A threat intelligence platform helps in collecting, processing, and analyzing threat data to provide actionable insights. These platforms integrate data from various sources, including dark web monitoring, honeypots, and other security tools, to offer a comprehensive view of the threat landscape.

Why a Threat Intelligence Platform?

Data Integration: It consolidates data from multiple sources, including dark web monitoring and honeypots, making it easier to analyze and derive actionable insights.

Actionable Insights: Provides real-time alerts and reports on potential threats, helping the organization take proactive measures.

Operational Efficiency: Streamlines the process of threat detection and response, allowing the security team to focus on critical issues.

Research and Development: Facilitates the operationalization of research output by providing a platform for continuous monitoring and analysis of emerging threats. Other options, while valuable, do not offer the same level of integration and operationalization capabilities:

A. Dark web monitoring: Useful for specific threat intelligence but lacks comprehensive operationalization.

C. Honeypots: Effective for detecting and analyzing specific attack vectors but not for broader threat intelligence.

D. Continuous adversary emulation: Important for testing defenses but not for integrating and operationalizing threat intelligence.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide

"Threat Intelligence Platforms," Gartner Research

NIST Special Publication 800-150, "Guide to Cyber Threat Information Sharing"





Question # 10



A company that uses containers to run its applications is required to identify vulnerabilities on every container image in a private repository The security team needs to be able to quickly evaluate whether to respond to a given vulnerability Which of the following, will allow the security team to achieve the objective with the last effort?
A. SAST scan reports
B. Centralized SBoM
C. CIS benchmark compliance reports
D. Credentialed vulnerability scan



B.
  Centralized SBoM

Explanation:

A centralized Software Bill of Materials (SBoM) is the best solution for identifying vulnerabilities in container images in a private repository. An SBoM provides a comprehensive inventory of all components, dependencies, and their versions within a container image, facilitating quick evaluation and response to vulnerabilities. Why Centralized SBoM?

Comprehensive Inventory: An SBoM lists all software components, including their versions and dependencies, allowing for thorough vulnerability assessments. Quick Identification: Centralizing SBoM data enables rapid identification of affected containers when a vulnerability is disclosed.

Automation: SBoMs can be integrated into automated tools for continuous monitoring and alerting of vulnerabilities.

Regulatory Compliance: Helps in meeting compliance requirements by providing a clear and auditable record of all software components used. Other options, while useful, do not provide the same level of comprehensive and efficient vulnerability management:

A. SAST scan reports: Focuses on static analysis of code but may not cover all components in container images. C. CIS benchmark compliance reports: Ensures compliance with security benchmarks but does not provide detailed component inventory. D. Credentialed vulnerability scan: Useful for in-depth scans but may not be as efficient for quick vulnerability evaluation.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
"Software Bill of Materials (SBoM)," NIST Documentation
"Managing Container Security with SBoM," OWASP



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CompTIA SecurityX Certification Exam Exam Dumps


Exam Code: CAS-005
Exam Name: CompTIA SecurityX Certification Exam

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