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Latest CAS-005 Exam Questions


Question # 1



Third parties notified a company's security team about vulnerabilities in the company's application. The security team determined these vulnerabilities were previously disclosed in third-party libraries. Which of the following solutions best addresses the reported vulnerabilities?
A. Using laC to include the newest dependencies
B. Creating a bug bounty program
C. Implementing a continuous security assessment program
D. Integrating a SASI tool as part of the pipeline



D.
  Integrating a SASI tool as part of the pipeline


Explanation:

The best solution to address reported vulnerabilities in third-party libraries is integrating a Static Application Security Testing (SAST) tool as part of the development pipeline. Here’s why: Early Detection: SAST tools analyze source code for vulnerabilities before the code is compiled. This allows developers to identify and fix security issues early in the development process.

Continuous Security: By integrating SAST tools into the CI/CD pipeline, the organization ensures continuous security assessment of the codebase, including third-party libraries, with each code commit and build.

Comprehensive Analysis: SAST tools provide a detailed analysis of the code, identifying potential vulnerabilities in both proprietary code and third-party dependencies, ensuring that known issues in libraries are addressed promptly.

References:

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl

OWASP Static Analysis Security Testing (SAST) Cheat Sheet

NIST Special Publication 800-53: Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations





Question # 2



The material finding from a recent compliance audit indicate a company has an issue with excessive permissions. The findings show that employees changing roles or departments results in privilege creep. Which of the following solutions are the best ways to mitigate this issue? (Select two).

Setting different access controls defined by business area

A. Implementing a role-based access policy
B. Designing a least-needed privilege policy
C. Establishing a mandatory vacation policy
D. Performing periodic access reviews
E. Requiring periodic job rotation



A.
  Implementing a role-based access policy



D.
  Performing periodic access reviews


Explanation:

To mitigate the issue of excessive permissions and privilege creep, the best solutions are: Implementing a Role-Based Access Policy:

Role-Based Access Control (RBAC): This policy ensures that access permissions are granted based on the user's role within the organization, aligning with the principle of least privilege. Users are only granted access necessary for their role, reducing the risk of excessive permissions.

References:

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl NIST Special Publication 800-53: Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations

Performing Periodic Access Reviews:

Regular Audits: Periodic access reviews help identify and rectify instances of privilege creep by ensuring that users' access permissions are appropriate for their current roles. These reviews can highlight unnecessary or outdated permissions, allowing for timely adjustments.

References:

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl

ISO/IEC 27001:2013 - Information Security Management





Question # 3



Which of the following best explains the business requirement a healthcare provider fulfills by encrypting patient data at rest?
A. Securing data transfer between hospitals
B. Providing for non-repudiation data
C. Reducing liability from identity theft
D. Protecting privacy while supporting portability.



D.
  Protecting privacy while supporting portability.


Explanation:

Encrypting patient data at rest is a critical requirement for healthcare providers to ensure compliance with regulations such as the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA). The primary business requirement fulfilled by this practice is the protection of patient privacy while supporting the portability of medical information. By encrypting data at rest, healthcare providers safeguard sensitive patient information from unauthorized access, ensuring that privacy is maintained even if the storage media are compromised. Additionally, encryption supports the portability of patient records, allowing for secure transfer and access across different systems and locations while ensuring that privacy controls are in place.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Emphasizes the importance of data encryption for protecting sensitive information and ensuring compliance with regulatory requirements.

HIPAA Security Rule: Requires healthcare providers to implement safeguards, including encryption, to protect patient data.

"Health Informatics: Practical Guide for Healthcare and Information Technology Professionals" by Robert E. Hoyt: Discusses encryption as a key measure for protecting patient data privacy and supporting data portability.





Question # 4



Which of the following AI concerns is most adequately addressed by input sanitation?
A. Model inversion
B. Prompt Injection
C. Data poisoning
D. Non-explainable model



B.
  Prompt Injection


Explanation:

Input sanitation is a critical process in cybersecurity that involves validating and cleaning data provided by users to prevent malicious inputs from causing harm. In the context of AI concerns:

A. Model inversion involves an attacker inferring sensitive data from model outputs, typically requiring sophisticated methods beyond just manipulating input data.

B. Prompt Injection is a form of attack where an adversary provides malicious input to manipulate the behavior of AI models, particularly those dealing with natural language processing (NLP). Input sanitation directly addresses this by ensuring that inputs are cleaned and validated to remove potentially harmful commands or instructions that could alter the AI's behavior.

C. Data poisoning involves injecting malicious data into the training set to compromise the model. While input sanitation can help by filtering out bad data, data poisoning is typically addressed through robust data validation and monitoring during the model training phase, rather than real-time input sanitation.

D. Non-explainable model refers to the lack of transparency in how AI models make decisions. This concern is not addressed by input sanitation, as it relates more to model design and interpretability techniques.

Input sanitation is most relevant and effective for preventing Prompt Injection attacks, where the integrity of user inputs directly impacts the performance and security of AI models.

References:

CompTIA Security+ Study Guide

"Security of Machine Learning" by Battista Biggio, Blaine Nelson, and Pavel Laskov

OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project) guidelines on input validation and injection

attacks Top of Form

Bottom of Form





Question # 5



A security configure is building a solution to disable weak CBC configuration for remote access connections lo Linux systems. Which of the following should the security engineer modify?
A. The /etc/openssl.conf file, updating the virtual site parameter
B. The /etc/nsswith.conf file, updating the name server
C. The /etc/hosts file, updating the IP parameter
D. The /etc/etc/sshd, configure file updating the ciphers



D.
  The /etc/etc/sshd, configure file updating the ciphers


Explanation:

The sshd_config file is the main configuration file for the OpenSSH server. To disable weak CBC (Cipher Block Chaining) ciphers for SSH connections, the security engineer should modify the sshd_config file to update the list of allowed ciphers. This file typically contains settings for the SSH daemon, including which encryption algorithms are allowed.

By editing the /etc/ssh/sshd_config file and updating the Ciphers directive, weak ciphers can be removed, and only strong ciphers can be allowed. This change ensures that the SSH server does not use insecure encryption methods.

References:

CompTIA Security+ Study Guide

OpenSSH manual pages (man sshd_config)

CIS Benchmarks for Linux





Question # 6



A software development team requires valid data for internal tests. Company regulations, however do not allow the use of this data in cleartext. Which of the following solutions best meet these requirements?
A. Configuring data hashing
B. Deploying tokenization
C. Replacing data with null record
D. Implementing data obfuscation



B.
  Deploying tokenization


Explanation:

Tokenization replaces sensitive data elements with non-sensitive equivalents, called tokens, that can be used within the internal tests. The original data is stored securely and can be retrieved if necessary. This approach allows the software development team to work with data that appears realistic and valid without exposing the actual sensitive information.

Configuring data hashing (Option A) is not suitable for test data as it transforms the data into a fixed-length value that is not usable in the same way as the original data. Replacing data with null records (Option C) is not useful as it does not provide valid data for testing. Data obfuscation (Option D) could be an alternative but might not meet the regulatory requirements as effectively as tokenization.

References:

CompTIA Security+ Study Guide

NIST SP 800-57 Part 1 Rev. 5, "Recommendation for Key Management"

PCI DSS Tokenization Guidelines





Question # 7



A systems administrator wants to reduce the number of failed patch deployments in an organization. The administrator discovers that system owners modify systems or applications in an ad hoc manner. Which of the following is the best way to reduce the number of failed patch deployments?
A. Compliance tracking
B. Situational awareness
C. Change management
D. Quality assurance



C.
  Change management


Explanation:

To reduce the number of failed patch deployments, the systems administrator should implement a robust change management process. Change management ensures that all modifications to systems or applications are planned, tested, and approved before deployment. This systematic approach reduces the risk of unplanned changes that can cause patch failures and ensures that patches are deployed in a controlled and predictable manner.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Emphasizes the importance of change management in maintaining system integrity and ensuring successful patch deployments.

ITIL (Information Technology Infrastructure Library) Framework: Provides best practices for change management in IT services.

"The Phoenix Project" by Gene Kim, Kevin Behr, and George Spafford: Discusses the critical role of change management in IT operations and its impact on system stability and reliability.





Question # 8



An organization wants to implement a platform to better identify which specific assets are affected by a given vulnerability. Which of the following components provides the best foundation to achieve this goal?
A. SASE
B. CMDB
C. SBoM
D. SLM



B.
  CMDB


Explanation:

A Configuration Management Database (CMDB) provides the best foundation for identifying which specific assets are affected by a given vulnerability. A CMDB maintains detailed information about the IT environment, including hardware, software, configurations, and relationships between assets. This comprehensive view allows organizations to quickly identify and address vulnerabilities affecting specific assets.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Discusses the role of CMDBs in asset management and vulnerability identification.

ITIL (Information Technology Infrastructure Library) Framework: Recommends the use of CMDBs for effective configuration and asset management.

"Configuration Management Best Practices" by Bob Aiello and Leslie Sachs: Covers the importance of CMDBs in managing IT assets and addressing vulnerabilities.





Question # 9



Audit findings indicate several user endpoints are not utilizing full disk encryption During me remediation process, a compliance analyst reviews the testing details for the endpoints and notes the endpoint device configuration does not support full disk encryption Which of the following is the most likely reason me device must be replaced'
A. The HSM is outdated and no longer supported by the manufacturer
B. The vTPM was not properly initialized and is corrupt.
C. The HSM is vulnerable to common exploits and a firmware upgrade is needed
D. The motherboard was not configured with a TPM from the OEM supplier
E. The HSM does not support sealing storage



D.
  The motherboard was not configured with a TPM from the OEM supplier

The most likely reason the device must be replaced is that the motherboard was not configured with a TPM (Trusted Platform Module) from the OEM (Original Equipment Manufacturer) supplier.
Why TPM is Necessary for Full Disk Encryption:
Hardware-Based Security: TPM provides a hardware-based mechanism to store encryption keys securely, which is essential for full disk encryption.
Compatibility: Full disk encryption solutions, such as BitLocker, require TPM to ensure that the encryption keys are securely stored and managed.
Integrity Checks: TPM enables system integrity checks during boot, ensuring that the device has not been tampered with.
Other options do not directly address the requirement for TPM in supporting full disk encryption:
A. The HSM is outdated: While HSM (Hardware Security Module) is important for security, it is not typically used for full disk encryption.
B. The vTPM was not properly initialized: vTPM (virtual TPM) is less common and not typically a reason for requiring hardware replacement.
C. The HSM is vulnerable to common exploits: This would require a firmware upgrade, not replacement of the device.
E. The HSM does not support sealing storage: Sealing storage is relevant but not the primary reason for requiring TPM for full disk encryption.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
"Trusted Platform Module (TPM) Overview," Microsoft Documentation
"BitLocker Deployment Guide," Microsoft Documentation




Question # 10



A security engineer performed a code scan that resulted in many false positives. The security engineer must find a solution that improves the quality of scanning results before application deployment. Which of the following is the best solution?
A. Limiting the tool to a specific coding language and tuning the rule set
B. Configuring branch protection rules and dependency checks
C. Using an application vulnerability scanner to identify coding flaws in production
D. Performing updates on code libraries before code development



A.
  Limiting the tool to a specific coding language and tuning the rule set

To improve the quality of code scanning results and reduce false positives, the best solution is to limit the tool to a specific coding language and fine-tune the rule set. By configuring the code scanning tool to focus on the specific language used in the application, the tool can more accurately identify relevant issues and reduce the number of
false positives. Additionally, tuning the rule set ensures that the tool's checks are appropriate for the application's context, further improving the accuracy of the scan results.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Discusses best practices for configuring code scanning tools, including language-specific tuning and rule set adjustments.
"Secure Coding: Principles and Practices" by Mark G. Graff and Kenneth R. van Wyk: Highlights the importance of customizing code analysis tools to reduce false positives.
OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project): Provides guidelines for configuring and tuning code scanning tools to improve accuracy.



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CompTIA CAS-005 Dumps - Latest Questions


Exam Code: CAS-005
Exam Name: CompTIA SecurityX Certification Exam

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