Question # 1
| An IT administrator is reviewing all the servers in an organization and notices that a server
is missing crucial practice against a recent exploit that could gain root access.
Which of the following describes the administrator’s discovery? |
| A. A vulnerability | | B. A threat
| | C. A breach | | D. A risk |
A. A vulnerability
Reference: https://www.beyondtrust.com/blog/entry/privilege-escalation-attack-defense
Question # 2
An organization is considering a BYOD standard to support remote working. The first
iteration of the solution will utilize only approved collaboration applications and the ability to
move corporate data between those applications. The security team has concerns about
the following:
Unstructured data being exfiltrated after an employee leaves the organization
Data being exfiltrated as a result of compromised credentials
Sensitive information in emails being exfiltrated
Which of the following solutions should the security team implement to mitigate the risk of
data loss?
|
| A. Mobile device management, remote wipe, and data loss detection
| | B. Conditional access, DoH, and full disk encryption | | C. Mobile application management, MFA, and DRM | | D. Certificates, DLP, and geofencing
|
C. Mobile application management, MFA, and DRM
Explanation:
Mobile application management (MAM) is a solution that allows the
organization to control and secure the approved collaboration applications and the data
within them on personal devices. MAM can prevent unstructured data from being exfiltrated
by restricting the ability to move, copy, or share data between applications. Multi-factor
authentication (MFA) is a solution that requires the user to provide more than one piece of
evidence to prove their identity when accessing corporate data. MFA can prevent data from
being exfiltrated as a result of compromised credentials by adding an extra layer of
security. Digital rights management (DRM) is a solution that protects the intellectual
property rights of digital content by enforcing policies and permissions on how the content
can be used, accessed, or distributed. DRM can prevent sensitive information in emails
from being exfiltrated by encrypting the content and limiting the actions that can be
performed on it, such as forwarding, printing, or copying.
Verified References:
https://www.manageengine.com/data-security/what-is/byod.html
https://www.cimcor.com/blog/7-scariest-byod-security-risks-how-to-mitigate
Question # 3
An organization is implementing a new identity and access management architecture with
the following objectives:
Supporting MFA against on-premises infrastructure
Improving the user experience by integrating with SaaS applications
Applying risk-based policies based on location
Performing just-in-time provisioning
Which of the following authentication protocols should the organization implement to
support these requirements?
|
| A. Kerberos and TACACS | | B. SAML and RADIUS | | C. OAuth and OpenID | | D. OTP and 802. |
C. OAuth and OpenID
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/manage-apps/migrateapplication-authentication-to-azure-active-directory
OAuth and OpenID are two authentication protocols that can support the objectives of the
organization. OAuth is a protocol that allows users to grant access to their resources on
one site (or service) to another site (or service) without sharing their credentials. OpenID is
a protocol that allows users to use an existing account to sign in to multiple websites
without creating new passwords. Both protocols can support MFA, SaaS integration, riskbased policies, and just-in-time provisioning.
References:
https://auth0.com/docs/protocols/oauth2 https://openid.net/connect/
Question # 4
| A security engineer estimates the company’s popular web application experiences 100
attempted breaches per day. In the past four years, the company’s data has been
breached two times.
Which of the following should the engineer report as the ARO for successful breaches? |
| A. 0.5 | | B. 8 | | C. 50 | | D. 36,500 |
A. 0.5
Reference:
https://blog.netwrix.com/2020/07/24/annual-loss-expectancy-and-quantitativerisk-analysis/
The ARO (annualized rate of occurrence) for successful breaches is the number of times
an event is expected to occur in a year. To calculate the ARO for successful breaches, the
engineer can divide the number of breaches by the number of years. In this case, the
company’s data has been breached two times in four years, so the ARO is 2 / 4 = 0.5. The
other options are incorrect calculations.
Verified References:
https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-risk-management
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide
Question # 5
| A university issues badges through a homegrown identity management system to all staff
and students. Each week during the summer, temporary summer school students arrive
and need to be issued a badge to access minimal campus resources. The security team
received a report from an outside auditor indicating the homegrown system is not
consistent with best practices in the security field and leaves the institution vulnerable.
Which of the following should the security team recommend FIRST? |
| A. Investigating a potential threat identified in logs related to the identity management
system | | B. Updating the identity management system to use discretionary access control
| | C. Beginning research on two-factor authentication to later introduce into the identity
management system | | D. Working with procurement and creating a requirements document to select a new IAM
system/vendor |
D. Working with procurement and creating a requirements document to select a new IAM
system/vendor
Explanation:
This is because the homegrown identity management system is not
consistent with best practices and leaves the institution vulnerable, which means it needs
to be replaced with a more secure and reliable solution. A new IAM system/vendor should
be able to provide features such as role-based access control, two-factor authentication,
auditing, and compliance that can enhance the security and efficiency of the identity
management process. A requirements document can help define the scope, objectives,
and criteria for selecting a suitable IAM system/vendor that meets the needs of the
institution.
Question # 6
| A company publishes several APIs for customers and is required to use keys to segregate
customer data sets.
Which of the following would be BEST to use to store customer keys? |
| A. A trusted platform module | | B. A hardware security module | | C. A localized key store
| | D. A public key infrastructure |
D. A public key infrastructure
Explanation:
A public key infrastructure (PKI) is a system of certificates and keys that can
provide encryption and authentication for APIs (application programming interfaces). A PKI
can be used to store customer keys for accessing APIs and segregating customer data
sets. A trusted platform module (TPM) is a hardware device that provides cryptographic
functions and key storage, but it is not suitable for storing customer keys for APIs. A
hardware security module (HSM) is similar to a TPM, but it is used for storing keys for
applications, not for APIs. A localized key store is a software component that stores keys
locally, but it is not as secure or scalable as a PKI.
Verified References:
https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-pki
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/defaultsource/resources/casp-content-guide
Question # 7
| A business stores personal client data of individuals residing in the EU in order to process
requests for mortgage loan approvals.
Which of the following does the business’s IT manager need to consider? |
| A. The availability of personal data | | B. The right to personal data erasure | | C. The company’s annual revenue | | D. The language of the web application |
B. The right to personal data erasure
Reference:
https://gdpr.eu/right-to-beforgotten/#:~:text=Also%20known%20as%20the%20right,to%20delete%20their%20person
al%20data.&text=The%20General%20Data%20Protection%20Regulation,collected%2C%2
0processed%2C%20and%20erased
The right to personal data erasure, also known as the right to be forgotten, is one of the
requirements of the EU General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), which applies to any
business that stores personal data of individuals residing in the EU. This right allows
individuals to request the deletion of their personal data from a business under certain
circumstances. The availability of personal data, the company’s annual revenue, and the
language of the web application are not relevant to the GDPR.
Verified References:
https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-gdpr
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/defaultsource/resources/casp-content-guide
Question # 8
| A company is implementing SSL inspection. During the next six months, multiple web
applications that will be separated out with subdomains will be deployed.
Which of the following will allow the inspection of the data without multiple certificate
deployments? |
| A. Include all available cipher suites | | B. Create a wildcard certificate.
| | C. Use a third-party CA. | | D. Implement certificate pinning. |
B. Create a wildcard certificate.
Explanation:
A wildcard certificate is a certificate that can be used for multiple subdomains
of a domain, such as *.example.com. This would allow the inspection of the data without
multiple certificate deployments, as one wildcard certificate can cover all the subdomains
that will be separated out with subdomains. Including all available cipher suites may not
help with inspecting the data without multiple certificate deployments, as cipher suites are
used for negotiating encryption and authentication algorithms, not for verifying certificates.
Using a third-party CA (certificate authority) may not help with inspecting the data without
multiple certificate deployments, as a third-party CA is an entity that issues and validates
certificates, not a type of certificate. Implementing certificate pinning may not help with
inspecting the data without multiple certificate deployments, as certificate pinning is a
technique that hardcodes the expected certificate or public key in the application code, not
a type of certificate.
Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-wildcardcertificate https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide
Question # 9
| Clients are reporting slowness when attempting to access a series of load-balanced APIs
that do not require authentication. The servers that host the APIs are showing heavy CPU
utilization. No alerts are found on the WAFs sitting in front of the APIs.
Which of the following should a security engineer recommend to BEST remedy the
Pass Your Certification With Marks4sure Guarantee 19
performance issues in a timely manner? |
| A. Implement rate limiting on the API. | | B. Implement geoblocking on the WAF. | | C. Implement OAuth 2.0 on the API. | | D. Implement input validation on the API. |
A. Implement rate limiting on the API.
Explanation:
Rate limiting is a technique that can limit the number or frequency of
requests that a client can make to an API (application programming interface) within a
given time frame. This can help remedy the performance issues caused by high CPU
utilization on the servers that host the APIs, as it can prevent excessive or abusive
requests that could overload the servers. Implementing geoblocking on the WAF (web
application firewall) may not help remedy the performance issues, as it could block
legitimate requests based on geographic location, not on request rate. Implementing OAuth
2.0 on the API may not help remedy the performance issues, as OAuth 2.0 is a protocol for
authorizing access to APIs, not for limiting requests. Implementing input validation on the
API may not help remedy the performance issues, as input validation is a technique for
preventing invalid or malicious input from reaching the API, not for limiting requests.
Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-rate-limiting
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide
Question # 10
| A company is looking to fortify its cybersecurity defenses and is focusing on its network
infrastructure. The solution cannot affect the availability of the company’s services to
ensure false positives do not drop legitimate traffic.
Which of the following would satisfy the requirement?
|
| A. NIDS | | B. NIPS | | C. WAF
| | D. Reverse proxy |
A. NIDS
Reference:
https://subscription.packtpub.com/book/networking-andservers/9781782174905/5/ch05lvl1sec38/differentiating-between-nids-and-nips
https://owasp.org/www-community/controls/Intrusion_Detection
A NIDS (Network Intrusion Detection System) is a security solution that monitors network
traffic for signs of malicious activity, such as attacks, intrusions, or policy violations. A NIDS
does not affect the availability of the company’s services because it operates in passive
mode, which means it does not block or modify traffic. Instead, it alerts the network
administrator or other security tools when it detects an anomaly or threat.
References:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/security/what-is-network-intrusion-detectionsystem.html
https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/network-intrusiondetection-system-nids/
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CASP certification stands for "CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner." It's a credential for IT professionals which validates advanced-level competency in risk management, enterprise security operations and architecture, research and collaboration, and integration of enterprise security.
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CASP certification offers several benefits. It demonstrates advanced competency in cybersecurity, enhancing your professional credibility. This certification can open doors to higher-level security roles and often leads to better job prospects and salaries. It's also globally recognized, making it valuable for careers worldwide.
CASP and Security+ cater to different levels of cybersecurity expertise. Security+ certification is more foundational, ideal for those starting in security, covering basic principles and practices. It's often a stepping stone for IT professionals. In contrast, CASP is an advanced certification, designed for experienced professionals.
The CASP certification is challenging, reflecting its status as an advanced credential in cybersecurity. It demands a solid understanding of complex security concepts and real-world problem-solving skills. The exam covers a broad spectrum of topics, from enterprise security to risk management and integration of computing, communications, and business disciplines.
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