Question # 1
Universal Containers wants to introduce data volume testing to resolve ongoing
performance defects earlier in the lifecycle. Regulations prohibit the use of production data
in non-production environments.
Which two options can the architect recommend?
(Choose 2 answers) |
A. Request a partial Sandbox copy after the next Salesforce release. | B. Generate mock data that mimics production data shape and volume. | C. Perform data masking on full sandbox after a refresh | D. Use Query Analyzer in production |
B. Generate mock data that mimics production data shape and volume.
C. Perform data masking on full sandbox after a refresh
Explanation: The architect should recommend generating mock data that mimics
production data shape and volume, and performing data masking on full sandbox after a
refresh. These options allow the team to create realistic data sets for testing without
violating the regulations that prohibit the use of production data in non-production
environments. Requesting a partial sandbox copy after the next Salesforce release is not a
valid option, as partial sandboxes are refreshed on demand and not tied to Salesforce
releases. Using Query Analyzer in production is not a way to perform data volume testing,
as it only analyzes the performance of SOQL queries.
Question # 2
Universal Containers business users often observe that newly released features are
resulting in other previously existing and stable functionality being broken. Which approach
should an Architect recommend to prevent regression? |
A. Utilize the developer console to run test suites for the affected functionality | B. Utilize unit and functional test automation as part of a continuous integration strategy | C. Utilize Salesforce Apex Hammer to automatically test all functionality | D. Freeze development of new features and re-architect the system to remove the bugs |
B. Utilize unit and functional test automation as part of a continuous integration strategy
Explanation: This is the correct answer because utilizing unit and functional test
automation as part of a continuous integration strategy can prevent regression by ensuring
that the code and configuration are always tested and validated before deployment.
Utilizing the developer console to run test suites is not sufficient and may not cover all the
functionality. Utilizing Salesforce Apex Hammer is not a feasible option as it is an internal
tool that Salesforce uses to test customer orgs before major releases. Freezing
development of new features and re-architecting the system is not a realistic or cost-effective approach to prevent regression.
Question # 3
Universal Containers (UC) is working with Salesforce CPQ, which uses configuration
SObjects to drive business logic.
What are two best practice recommendations an architect should propose to allow UC to
deploy CPQ features as part of their CI/CD process?
Choose 2 answers |
A. Use a third-party product | B. Build an Apex framework to deploy CPQ records. | C. Use an open source SFDX plugin and version control | D. Use data loader to deploy CSV files |
B. Build an Apex framework to deploy CPQ records.
C. Use an open source SFDX plugin and version control
Explanation: Building an Apex framework to deploy CPQ records and using an open
source SFDX plugin and version control are two best practice recommendations an
architect should propose to allow UC to deploy CPQ features as part of their CI/CD
process. Building an Apex framework to deploy CPQ records is a good practice, as it
allows the architect to automate the deployment of the configuration SObjects that drive the
business logic of CPQ, and to avoid manual steps or errors. Using an open source SFDX
plugin and version control is another good practice, as it allows the architect to leverage the
benefits of the Salesforce DX development model, such as source-driven development,
modular packaging, and team collaboration. Using a third-party product or data loader to
deploy CSV files are not best practices, as they can introduce additional costs,
dependencies, or risks to the deployment process.
Question # 4
NorthernTrail Outfitters (NTO) has well-defined release management processes for both
large and small projects. NTO's development team created a workflow and a trigger for the
changes in its opportunity renewal process.
What should the architect recommend for release planning of these changes? |
A. Plan this as a patch release and align with the Salesforce patch release. | B. Plan this as a major release and align with a Salesforce major release. | C. Plan this as a minor release with training and change management | D. Plan this an interim release after checking with Salesforce support |
C. Plan this as a minor release with training and change management
Explanation: A workflow and a trigger are considered minor changes that do not require
alignment with a Salesforce major or patch release. However, they still need proper testing,
training, and change management before being deployed to production. Therefore, the
architect should plan this as a minor release with training and change management.
Question # 5
Metadata API supports deploy () and retrieve () calls for file-based deployment.
Which two scenarios are the primary use cases for writing code to call retrieve () and
deploy ()
methods directly?
(Choose 2 answers) |
A. Team development of an application in a Developer Edition organization.
After completing development and testing, the application is Distributed via
Lightning Platform AppExchange. | B. Development of a custom application in a scratch org. After completing development and
testing, the application is then deployed into an upper sandbox using Salesforce CLI(SFDX) | C. Development of a customization in a sandbox organization. The deployment team then
utilize the Ant Migration Tool to deploy the customization to an upper sandbox for testing. | D. Development of a custom application in a sandbox organization. After completing
development and testing, the application is then deployed into a production organization
usingMetadata API. |
A. Team development of an application in a Developer Edition organization.
After completing development and testing, the application is Distributed via
Lightning Platform AppExchange.
D. Development of a custom application in a sandbox organization. After completing
development and testing, the application is then deployed into a production organization
usingMetadata API.
Explanation: The Metadata API is mainly used for file-based deployment, such as deploying an application from a Developer Edition org to the AppExchange, or from a
sandbox org to a production org. The Ant Migration Tool is a wrapper around the Metadata
API, so it is not a direct use case for writing code to call retrieve() and deploy() methods.
The Salesforce CLI (SFDX) uses the Source-Driven Development model, which relies on
the source code as the source of truth, rather than the Metadata API.
Question # 6
Universal Containers’ org is complex but well-organized in unlocked packages with
their dependencies. The development team was asked for a new feature, and the package
that
will be changed has already been identified.
Which environment should be used for this development? |
A. A Developer Pro sandbox with all packages installed. | B. A scratch org with all installed packages | C. A Developer Pro sandbox with the package code that will be changed and its
dependencies installed. | D. A scratch org with the package code that will be changed and its dependencies |
D. A scratch org with the package code that will be changed and its dependencies
Explanation: The best environment for developing a new feature in an org with unlocked
packages is a scratch org with the package code that will be changed and its
dependencies. A scratch org is a source-driven and disposable deployment of Salesforce
code and metadata that is fully configurable and can be created quickly. A scratch org can
also install unlocked packages and their dependencies, which can help ensure
compatibility and functionality of the new feature. A Developer Pro sandbox is not a good option, as it is not source-driven and can have outdated or conflicting data and metadata.
Question # 7
Universal Containers uses multiple Salesforce orgs for its different lines of business
(LOBs). In a recent analysis, the architect found that UC could have a more complete view
of its customers by gathering customer data from different orgs.
What two options can an architect recommend to accomplish the customer 360-degree
view?
(Choose 2 answers) |
A. Implement a Complete Graph multi-org strategy by allowing each org to connect directly
to every other, reading and writing customer data from the orgs where it has been originally
created. | B. Migrate from multi-org to single-org strategy, consolidating customer data in the
process. | C. Implement a Single Package multi-org strategy by developing and deploying to all orgs a
managed package which reads and consolidates customer 360-degree view from the
different orgs. | D. Implement a Hub-and-Spoke multi-org strategy by consolidating customer data In a
single org, which will be the master of customer data, and using integration strategies to let
the LOBs orgs read and write from it. |
D. Implement a Hub-and-Spoke multi-org strategy by consolidating customer data In a
single org, which will be the master of customer data, and using integration strategies to let
the LOBs orgs read and write from it.
Explanation: Implementing a Hub-and-Spoke multi-org strategy by consolidating customer
data in a single org, which will be the master of customer data, and using integration
strategies to let the LOBs orgs read and write from it is one of the options an architect can
recommend to accomplish the customer 360-degree view. This way, the architect can
ensure that there is a single source of truth for the customer data, and that the data is
consistent and synchronized across the different orgs. Implementing a Single Package
multi-org strategy by developing and deploying to all orgs a managed package which reads
and consolidates customer 360-degree view from the different orgs is another option an
architect can recommend, as it allows the architect to create a reusable and scalable
solution that can provide a unified view of the customer data from multiple sources.
Implementing a Complete Graph multi-org strategy or migrating from multi-org to single-org
strategy are not feasible or optimal options, as they can introduce complexity, cost, or risk
to the architecture.
Question # 8
Universal Containers (UC) is developing a custom Force.com application. The following
tools are used for development, the Force.com IDE for developing apps. Git as a source
control system and a Git repository, and the Force.com Migration Tool for updating
sandboxes from source control. UC's current branching strategy calls for two main
branches: 1) Master 2) Develop Three supporting branches: 1) Feature 2) Release 3)
Hotflix Consider that the branching strategy is in parallel as follows Feature |Develop
|Release |Hotfix |Master What is the recommended practice strategy that Developers should adopt for Development? |
A. Developers work off of the Feature branch, which is pulled from the Master branch and
the Feature branch is then merged with the Develop branch. | B. Developers work off of the Feature branch, which is pulled from the Develop branch, and
the Feature branch is then merged with the Develop branch. | C. Developers work off of the Feature branch, which is pulled from the Release branch,
and the Feature branch is then merged with the Develop branch. | D. Developers work off of the Feature branch, which is pulled from the Develop branch,
and the Feature branch is then merged with the Hotfix branch. |
B. Developers work off of the Feature branch, which is pulled from the Develop branch, and
the Feature branch is then merged with the Develop branch.
Explanation: This is the correct answer because developers should work on feature
branches that are derived from the develop branch, which represents the latest stable
version of the code. The feature branches should then be merged back into the develop
branch after they are completed and tested. This way, the develop branch always contains
the most updated code that is ready for release.
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