Question # 1
| A high-usage cloud resource needs to be monitored in real time on specific events to guarantee its availability. Which of the following actions should be used to meet this requirement? |
| A. Configure a ping command to identify when the cloud instance is out of service.
| | B. Create a dashboard with visualizations to filter the status of critical activities.
| | C. Collect all the daily activity from the cloud instance and create a dump file for analysis.
| | D. Schedule an hourly scan of the network to check for the availability of the resource.
|
B. Create a dashboard with visualizations to filter the status of critical activities.
Explanation:
To guarantee real-time monitoring of a high-usage cloud resource, creating a dashboard with visualizations to filter the status of critical activities is effective. This allows for a quick visual assessment of the system's health and performance, enabling immediate action if specific events indicate potential issues with availability.
Question # 2
| A cloud engineer is collecting web server application logs to troubleshoot intermittent issues. However, the logs are piling up and causing storage issues. Which of the following log
mechanisms should the cloud engineer implement to address this issue? |
| A. Splicing | | B. Rotation
| | C. Sampling | | D. Inspection |
B. Rotation
Explanation:
Log rotation is the mechanism the cloud engineer should implement to address the issue of logs piling up and causing storage issues. Log rotation involves automatically archiving old log files and creating new ones after a certain size or time period, preventing storage issues.
Question # 3
A cloud engineer wants to implement a disaster recovery strategy that:
- Is cost-effective.
- Reduces the amount of data loss in case of a disaster.
- Enables recovery with the least amount of downtime.
Which of the following disaster recovery strategies best describes what the cloud engineer wants to achieve? |
| A. Cold site
| | B. Off site
| | C. Warm site
| | D. Hot site
|
D. Hot site
Explanation:
A hot site is a disaster recovery strategy that is cost-effective, minimizes data loss, and allows for the fastest recovery time in case of a disaster. It is an exact replica of the original site of the organization, with full computer systems as well as near-complete backups of user data. Hot sites are operational 24/7 and can take over functionality from the primary site immediately or with minimal delay.
Question # 4
| Which of the following is a direct effect of cloud migration on an enterprise? |
| A. The enterprise must reorganize the reporting structure.
| | B. Compatibility issues must be addressed on premises after migration.
| | C. Cloud solutions will require less resources than on-premises installations.
| | D. Utility costs will be reduced on premises.
|
D. Utility costs will be reduced on premises.
Explanation:
Cloud migration typically results in a reduction of on-premises utility costs because the physical infrastructure requirements, such as power and cooling, are transferred to the cloud provider. This shift can lead to significant savings in utility expenses for the enterprise.
Question # 5
| Which of the following strategies requires the development of new code before an application can be successfully migrated to a cloud provider? |
| A. Refactor | | B. Rearchitect | | C. Rehost
| | D. Replatform |
A. Refactor
Explanation:
Refactoring requires the development of new code before an application can be successfully migrated to a cloud provider. It often involves restructuring and optimizing the existing code without changing its external behavior to fit into the new cloud environment.
Question # 6
| Two CVEs are discovered on servers in the company's public cloud virtual network. The CVEs are listed as having an attack vector value of network and CVSS score of 9.0. Which
of the following actions would be the best way to mitigate the vulnerabilities? |
| A. Patching the operating systems
| | B. Upgrading the operating systems to the latest beta
| | C. Encrypting the operating system disks
| | D. Disabling unnecessary open ports
|
A. Patching the operating systems
Explanation:
For vulnerabilities with a high CVSS score and a network attack vector, the most effective and direct mitigation action is to patch the operating systems. Patching addresses the specific vulnerabilities that have been identified and helps to secure the servers against the known exploits that could take advantage of these CVEs.
Question # 7
| Which of the following provides secure, private communication between cloud environments without provisioning additional hardware or appliances? |
| A. VPN | | B. VPC peering
| | C. BGP | | D. Transit gateway
|
B. VPC peering
Explanation:
VPC peering provides secure, private communication between cloud environments without the need for provisioning additional hardware or appliances. It allows direct network connectivity between two Virtual Private Clouds (VPCs), enabling resources in either VPC to communicate with each other using private IP addresses.
Question # 8
| Which of the following describes the main difference between public and private container repositories?
|
| A. Private container repository access requires authorization, while public repository access does not require authorization | | B. Private container repositories are hidden by default and containers must be directly referenced, while public container repositories allow browsing of container images. | | C. Private container repositories must use proprietary licenses, while public container repositories must have open-source licenses. | | D. Private container repositories are used to obfuscate the content of the Dockerfile, while public container repositories allow for Dockerfile inspection. |
A. Private container repository access requires authorization, while public repository access does not require authorization
Explanation:
The main difference between public and private container repositories lies in access control. Public repositories allow users to download and use container images without requiring any authorization, making them accessible to anyone. On the other hand, private repositories require users to have proper authorization, usually through credentials, to access the container images, thus providing a level of privacy and security control.
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CompTIA Cloud+ (2025) Exam Dumps
Exam Code: CV0-004
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CompTIA Cloud+ validates your foundational knowledge of cloud computing concepts, regardless of the specific vendor. It proves you understand cloud deployment models, security, automation, and troubleshooting. This certification aligns well with roles like:
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CompTIA CV0-004 exam evaluates a candidate's knowledge of cloud technologies through a variety of question formats, including multiple-choice and performance-based questions. The exam covers critical areas such as cloud architecture and design, security, troubleshooting, and operations management.
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CompTIA Cloud+ stands out as a vendor-neutral cloud certification. It focuses on foundational concepts applicable across different cloud platforms (AWS, Azure, etc.). In contrast, other cloud certifications often dive deep into the technologies and tools of a specific vendor. Think of Cloud+ as the broad foundation, upon which you can specialize with other certifications later.
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